From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
Message: 4908
Date: 2000-12-03
>Concerning the supposed plural *no:mn-x, why does the following link show the Sanskrit plural of /na:ma(n)/ to be /na:ma:ni/?Pay attention. These are the "vrddhi-collectives" I was discussing
>Before you jump the gun and tell me "But it ends with /-i/, silly. Therefore *-x is attested!", I'm wondering about the extra length in the second syllable that you might help to explain for me. For all the world, it would appear to me to be a suggestion of IE *nomó:n (from an earlier **nomónx just like *wodr & *wedo:r) where Sanskrit /-i/ has been secondarily added.
>Miguel stated: You told me, but you failed thus far to give any examples or anyAbout precisely how unstressed *e gives *o? I don't think so.
>precise rules; So what's your view on the poimé:n/dáimo:n thing?
>I've just given you a long list of precise rules, Miguel.
>The poimé:n/dáimo:n thing? Greek "pastor" and "demon"? Or are we talking about IndoEuropean itself? Please, let's only deal with IndoEuropean and not random items in any IE language. What's the IE relevance to poimé:n/dáimo:n?I'd suggest you think about it.
>I have provided some of these main preIE rules like "MidIE penultimate accent"So how does that explain protero-dynamic vs. hystero-dymanic vs.
>Miguel confusingly states in two seperate areas of your last post:*g^ was most certainly not caused by *e. I, and many others with me,
>The **a: in a palatal environment (*g^) failed to back, and developed
>to *e:, distinct from short *e ( < **a).
>[...]The root had a long vowel (**wa:dn-). Under the stress, this
>develops to *o (*wódr). When unstressed, **a: is first shortened to
>**a, and then develops normally to *e (*wednós). What's the problem?
>There are three very large problems that defy probability:
> 1) You are heavily dependent on the unlikelihood
> that *g^ is a very ancient, seperate phoneme
> from IE *g and not caused by Late IE *e.</P>
>2) You reconstruct *a: unnecessarily when noI have given the explanation: stress.
> evidence suggests that this vowel should
> be vrddhi.
>
> 3) There is no order to the development of **a:
> which is free to become either a short OR
>long vowel without solid explanation.</P>
>First of all, if it is true that **a: > *o, except in the environs of an already existant *g^ where it becomes *e:, as you have now claimed,What I have claimed is that in certain circumstances (e.g. after *y-
>you are stating that *e(:) does not cause allophony in velars (*g > *g^).That in any case. E.g. Slavic c^asU < *ke:s-.
>In all likelihood, *g^ is merely a secondary item, a palatal allophone of *g in the presence of front *e. I think most IEists would accept this as a late development, otherwise we would expect much more ancient "satem" languages than what we actually have.?
>Second, please provide the exact sound changes for your preIE **a if **a: is supposed to have created all of *o, *e:, *e and *a (??!). Is there short preIE **a at all? What twisted preIE phonological system do you have in mind, exactly? I really can't help but believe that you're just making it up as you go along. If *re:g^ is supposed to be long throughout the paradigm and yet with mobile accent,I didn't say it had mobile accent. Looks like a static root noun to
><P>I'm sure you've seen my yet-to-be-revised site at:Actually. I haven't.
><P> <A href="http://glen-gordon.tripod.com/language.html">http://glen-gordon.tripod.com/language.html</A></P>
><P>It says some more on the subject.</P>
><P> indicative analogical <BR> pre-indicative established alterations<BR>---------------------------------------------------------<BR>1pp *-mes *-mesi/*-mes *-mes/*-me<BR>2pp *-tes *-tesi/*-tes *-tes/*-te</P>=======================
><P>1ps *-om > *-o: *-o:i/*-o: *-o:/*-o(m)</P>