Re: [tied] Re: Lusitanians

1) REVA from *DYEUS...or from *DEIWOS?

2) So, until what was posted until now:

PIE k'> Lus c = /k/
PIE o > Lus o
PIE d > Lus r
PIE bh > Lus f
PIE au > Lus au
PIE -s > Lus <zero>
PIE w > Lus v (=/v/ or /u/?)

Can the drop of intervocalic N and L in Portuguese be an influence of
Lusitanic substratum?
Joao SL
Rio de Janeiro

----- Original Message -----
From: <ARKURGAL@...>
To: <cybalist@egroups.com>
Sent: Tuesday, August 29, 2000 11:34 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Lusitanians


>
> > It has been claimed (I can't say how reliably -- I haven't examined
> the data myself) that IE *bH is reflected as *f in Lusitanian. If it
> were true, then, given its generally non-Celtic features, Lusitanian
> was perhaps closer to Italic than to Celtic. But it's all extremely
> speculative, seeing how limited the Lusitanian material is. I
> wouldn't swear on the Bible that Lusitanian was Italo-Celtic at all.
> One can only hope that sooner or later a few more inscriptions will
> be unearthed and further clarification will become possible.»
>
> One more information: it seems that Lusitanic exchanges the IE D for
> R. So, the greatest Deity in Lusitanian Pantheon would be REVA, form
> the IE DYEUS-. Now, according to an eastern oriental author, that
> characteristic is also found in the Umbrian language, which is
> Italiot.
>
>
> > Celtiberian (or "Hispano-Celtic") is a branch of Celtic known from
> Iberia, and while some Iberian linguistic influence on it is likely,
> the "-iberian" part should be understood as a purely geographic
> designation. Thracian, Illyrian and Hellenic languages were spoken
> close to one another but don't seem to have had much in Common. The
> poorly known Messapic language (usually thought to be Illyrian) shows
> areal affinities with Greek, but in many respects is closer to
> the "Western" languages (Italo-Celtic, Germanic). Thracian (even less
> known from direct evidence than Messapic or Lusitanian) was at any
> rate a satem language, unlike Greek or Illyrian.»
>
> All I said was what I've read once about the subject, regarding the
> closeness between Thracian, Illyrian and Hellenic. Don't they belong
> to a given group, within the indo-european family?
>
>
> «As for the wheel, I can't speak for Cyril, but I presume it's a
> visual allusion to the "wheel/wagon/horse" cultural package which is
> thought by many to be characteristically Indo-European.»
>
> Thank you. But was it used as a symbol amongst any Ancient Indo-
> European group?
>
>
>
>
>