From: Guillaume JACQUES
Message: 1924
Date: 2000-03-22
>I never read the Rgveda, but aren't the 'seven rivers' (that is the
> Gerry I wonder about Indo Aryan being indigenous to the south of the
> Indus. I have seen analyses that suggest the earliest IE of which we
> have record, the Rg Veda shows a sophisticated understanding of the
> Kabul and Kunnar Rivers that flow through the Khyber pass, as well as
> the Indus Punjab, but show very little knowledge of the Sind, Gujerat,
> Bolan Pass or Indus mouth, which they would have preserved if they had
> come from the south.
>angels,
>
> Bablyonian captivity to rebuild their temple. In this way, a great
> number of Babylonian-Persian beliefs entered into Judaism (eg Eden =
> Edin (Sumerian for garden), Paradise (from the Persian), winged
> the mother of all living (Eve) being made out of Adam's rib (from theAlthough this has nothing to do with our current discussion, I don't
> Sumerian pun = Ninti), the story of Ruth and Esther (Persian for
> Ishtar) etc).
>the
> Apart from the Elamites to the south west, there is no reference in
> Iranian mythos to my knowledge of any indigenous or "foreign" peoplesstruggle
> until the Shah Namah of Ferdausi. In his stories of the struggles of
> Rustam, the central theme is of the irreconcilable and eternal
> between Iran and Turan (urkic Altaic peoples) in North Eastern Iran.Well, this is even older than the tibetan work I was talking about. I
> And Ferdausi composed his great Epic in the late courts of the last
> Samanid monarch and later of Mahmud of Ghazna - far too late for your
> purposes her Gerry.
>were
> What can we assume from this? Firstly that Indo-Iranian languages
> well established throughout northern and eastern Iran from a veryearly
> time. The linguistic shift from *s to *h (eg *Soma (Indian) to *haomaabolish
> (Ianian), *Asura (Indian) to *Ahura (Iranian)) shown in the very
> earliest Zaraoastrian Gathas occurred very early. If we are to
> the theory of the Aryan invasion, then the earliest that Indo-Aryancan
> have appeared in India would have been sometime in the early formativehave
> period of the Indus civilisation - 2,500 to 2,000 BCE. If they were
> present in the Indus civilisation period (as Hindu revisionist
> historians argue) then that civilisation - like Mesopotamia - must
> been multiethnic, in which a unitary culture transcended linguisticI agree on that. I do believe that aryans arrived step by step in the
> differences.
>