From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 1842
Date: 2000-03-11
> Anybody has an idea why turkic kIrk "fourty" was loaned as sorok intohave
> russian - I mean, the svabhakti vowel is normal, but what about the
> palatalisation of the initial an why an s- ? I supposed it is due to
> the second palatalisation, but in this case the turkic form should
> been xIrk , and not kIrk. Does anybody know a turkic language whereActually, the second palatalisation would have given Slavic c [ts], as
> this k- is palatalised (it is surprising in front of a back vowel) ?
> Any other explanation for the russian form (are there other slavonic
> languages that dropped the old word for fourty ?).
>
> Guillaume
>