Re: ProtoWorld

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 1404
Date: 2000-02-07

 
----- Original Message -----
From: Glen Gordon
To: cybalist@egroups.com
Sent: Monday, February 07, 2000 9:31 AM
Subject: [cybalist] ProtoWorld

One's reasoning when evaluating a theory has to be based on some sort of 
knowledge of the subject plus the ability to think realistically in terms of 
likeliest probability (since we are dealing with a theoretical subject here 
and there are often no absolutes). To think realistically about probability 
one has to understand Occhim's Rasor. It basically says not to multiply 
hypotheses and to not give in to wild assumption that ignores the greatest 
probability.

For instance, here's Occhim's Rasor at work: It's most logical that there 
was no first human language since it cannot arise out of the blue amongst a 
mute population without the meanings of its words being conveyed first but 
this cannot be done without language - a chicken-and-the-egg paradox (or so 
it seems).

The most rational solution is that it must have evolved slowly from a less 
abstract form - gestural language. Therefore, vocal language has bubbled 
forth in different populations in different areas independantly, giving rise 
to many Proto-Worlds over a vast period of time amongst a vocal but 
predominantly signing population. In this muddle, it would be quite 
impossible with comparative linguistics to work back to any early sign 
language form, nor to pick apart the intermediary but partially 
sign-dependant forms of vocal language from the gestural signs themselves.

However, despite the certainty of polygenesis, we cannot pretend to know in 
our present knowledge whether the languages that have survived to the 
present day are or are not derived from some common ancestor (even though 
this is assuredly not THE Proto-World). Thus, it is still quite possible for 
a monogenetic origin of modern languages (a kind of "Eve hypothesis" in 
linguistic terms) but it is not possible for vocal language to have been 
anything other than polygenic.

Soon everyone will be assimilated into Glen's World Order of Linguistic 
Theory.... HAHAHAHAHA!!!!

- gLeN

Dear Glen,
 
I agree completely with your assessment of the PW question. The reason why I'm agnostic about language polygenesis is precisely (and solely) because I cannot exclude the possibility that the scenario you mention, with only one SURVIVING lineage at some point, might be real. I'm pretty sure for a variety of reasons that the evolution of language was a slow and cumulative process which led to the parallel (as opposed to SIMULTANEOUS, Gerry) development of a rather large number of "proto-dialects" (this was the cultural aspect of the process) alongside the biological facilities allowing any human to acquire any of those culture-specific and culturally transmitted codes. People often argue in favour of monogenesis pointing out that the human language faculty seems to work in the same way across the species, and that there exist linguistic universals restricting the range of permissible grammars. This is absurd. "Universal Grammar" is not fossilised "Proto-Grammar"; its just a set of constraints which define what is learnable for a human child, and which are compatible with ANY number of languages now, just as they were in the remote past.
 
My only quibble, Glen, concerns the way you spell the name of the man with the razor (unless I'm missing a pun).
 
Piotr