From: Adrian
Message: 588
Date: 1999-12-15
> > === Dating is a very vexed issue. Feynmann, the scientist, oncecommented
> *** Actually while historical dating isn't really firm before the oldestHi Tommy, being one trusting fellow, refuse to call myself a sceptic, for
> Assyrian limmu-lists (911 BCE) geophysical dating within the Holocene is
> rather tightly constrained by C14-dating, dendrochronology and rhytmite
> (varved clay) dating. These three quite independent dating methods agree
> that the Holocene began slightly over 11,000 calendar years ago, with an
> uncertainty of a few centuries at the most. Since the Cultural sequence
> (and initial neolithization) in the Near East can be stratigraphically and
> climatologically tied to the immediately preceding Younger Dryas stadial
> the starting point of Near East farming cultures (Pre Pottery Neolithic A)
> is pretty well tied down to approx. 10,000 BCE.
> Admittedly there are areas that have not been too well surveyed
> archaeologically yet, but it seems to me that the chances of finding a
> major center of neolithization older than the Near East one somewhere else
> are very slim. For one thing there doesn't seem to be any important
> cultivars left whose origin hasn't been at least approximately determined.
>script
> ***Tommy Tyrberg
> >
> > > The demotic Egyptian script later still.
> > >
> > > >in the conversion from Harappan script - stone age glyphs, I believe
> > >
> > > -- Bronze Age, actually; 3rd-2nd millenium BCE.
> >
> > === That's OUR dating and specialist confined as well, Indian scholars
> date
> > otherwise, now who's right? They were orally transmitted long before, so
> now
> > what? Take the Sepher Yetsirah, published 1613 AD Mantua, Spain,
> Elsevir,
> > I think.. Rabbinic scholarship, on the basis of phrases and words in
> common
> > with the Talmud, dates at 200 BC, and as a geometric contrivance its
> > conventions are much older. So it just depends as to which "unique
> Feature"
> > one elects and names as to how it comes up. Whoever 'composed' it date
> > unknown, was assuredly not thinking in or with words, so now how old is
> it?
> > I could "teach" it in ten minutes with a tray of sand, so what now about
> > communicable? IN words it's nearly incomprehensible unless one already
> knows
> > its conventions which were not that of word language.
> >
> > > The Harappan script vanished with the civilization and when literacy
> > returned to India, it was using scripts derived from further west;
> > ultimately from the Semitic alphabets.
> >
> > === And because conceivably mildly misnamed and possibly somewhat
> mislocated
> > the whole argument falls flat? I've known the odd case of several
> sequences
> > in changes of mind on several matters.
> >
> > > >whereas Western conventions date that as around 1500 BC, as the
> emergence
> > of
> > > the Vedas in written form.
> > >
> > > -- no, the Vedas were not written down until much later and in a
> > > ultimately derived from Aramaic. They were probably _composed_ someto
> time
> > in the 1000's BCE. Transmission was oral.
> >
> > === Again, opinions differ and depends on whom one reads.
>
> *** Indic alphabetic scripts can't be much older since they couldn't very
> well be older than the script they were derived from.
>
> ***Tommy Tyrberg
> >
> > > >Hmm, and by what means did such a vocab grow?
> > >
> > > -- people invent words as needed.
> > === Really, I've invented the odd words and OED editors say of 1000s
> > invented barely a 100 er annum make it. Are all words so invented, and
> > there's no odd wrinkly uncertainties about it? I've got a private label
> for
> > this but won't use it.
> >
> >
> > > >Which languages?
> > >
> > > -- all languages are of roughly equivalent semantic efficiency.
> > Vocabulary
> > > aside, there's nothing that can be said in one that can't be said in
> > another.
> >
> > === Now quite by what means and basis and method was that conclusion
> arrived
> > at? And as to 'roughly" how roughly or merely by apodictic utterance?
> > Haven't used that word for about 45 years but it seems to fit.
> >
> > > >Thus one has to read the entire textus and decide from context which
> is
> > > meant.
> > >
> > > -- you're confusing the script and the language. The first writing
> > systems
> > > were less efficient than alphabetic scripts; but that does not apply
> > thesentence
> > > languages themselves.
> >
> > === I'm sorry but that's mind reading of a kind. Or, more mildly,
> replaces
> > one opinion with another. I've seen a Chinese Mandarin scholar DO it,
> Took
> > him ten minutes and I asked why. It does not really do to pick a
> > from a paragraph and context to "refute" it. Quite explicate, pleae,
> what
> > is intended to be converyed by "does not apply to the languages
> thmselves,
> > is that relevant to reading a language and if so, in quite what way?
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
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