From: Marc Verhaegen
Message: 187
Date: 1999-11-06
I agree it's not impossible that tooi and touw are resembling each other by accident, but more likely they are related.Dear Mark, [please: Marc with c --if only to discern from Mark Odegard --MV]In case you should think my criticism isn't constructive, I have found some additional evidence IN SUPPORT of your hypothesis. The Oxford English Dictionary reports tow as a potter's term, meaning 'to smooth the surface of a clay vessel by rubbing it with a length of cord'. This seems to be the hitherto missing semantic link. The OED offers no etymology, just quotations, but it is quite clearly a subspecies of the etymon tow=finish off rather than tow=drag. The existence of this term makes it more likely that tow=flax etc. is connected with tow=finish off, despite certain phonological problems: OE tawian < *tawo:j- and to:w do not match very well; one must assume that they are both derived from a Germanic base (certainly a noun) unattested in English, preferably a stem like *tawa-, which would mean (rather conjecturally) 'string, cord'. (Don't confuse this with the attested OE tawa 'tool' < *taw-an-, a weak deverbal noun, semantically the name of an instrument, derived from tawian.) Such a hypothetical noun COULD go back to PIE **dowo- or the like, on the condition that you find anything reasonably like it outside Germanic (e.g. a verb root like **deu- 'twist? bind?' -- or anything to do with cord) to prove that using cord for such a purpose was an IE speciality. Otherwise no arguments based on the derivation 'cord' > 'finish off' may hold generally for Indo-European. I've never seen any such forms but the line seems worth pursuing. You've got me interested in the matter and perhaps other Cybalist members will be able to help.
MV: Piotr, thank you very much for your linguistic comments. Some questions:What does the double ** mean?*deuk means 'pull', isn't it?IMO the question is not: was 'cord'>'finish' general for PIE? but: was 'cord'>'decoration' general for PIE (or at least the western branch)? --MarcAnd in that case we may expect that everywhere in Europe where we find the corded ware (=pots decorated by cords) and the dervied bell beakers the bearers of these cultures spoke PIE because the time and the space fit perfectly. The touw=tooi argument is a confirmation of some of the ideas Gimbutas and other people who already years ago provided arguments to believe that the beaker peoples could be identified with the western branch of PIE. The last decades there is consensus on when and how the beaker peopled migrated into N+W Europe. A.Sherrat (in The Oxford Illustrated Prehistory of Europe ed.B.Cunliffe, Oxford UP, pp.167-201 & 244-276) says that the first archaeological evidence for ornamentation using cords is on the Pontic steppes, where horses were domesticated about 4000 BC. At Dereivka on the Dniepr pots with cord impressions were found, and it was from the Kurgan or Pit Grave culture in this region that about 3000 BC the corded beakers spread over the N-European Plain, to southern Scandinavia and to the Baltic region and Russia. Sherrat gives several very nice maps on these migrations. About 2800 BD they had reached the Rhine delta where they changed into bell beakers. About 2500 BC the bell beakers had reached S-France (via the Rhone valley) where they split into an Iberian and an Italian branch. --MarcI'm pretty sure the bearers of the Corded Ware and Bell Beaker cultures were linguistically Indo-European or at least predominantly so. I'm equally sure, given the wide horizons of those cultures and their chronology, that they already spoke strongly differentiated IE languages rather than uniform PIE. For linguistic reasons I'd be reluctant to associate the Bell Beakers with Italo-Celtic. The Bell Beaker area coincides significantly, in my opinion, with that of the so-called Old European hydronymy (including the British Isles), and the language of the latter doesn't look like Celtic or Italo-Celtic at all. It shows, for example, an unconditional merger of *a and *o as in Germanic or Balto-Slavic -- an areal peculiarity which affected neither Italic nor Celtic. --PiotrMV: Well, if the bell beaker people did not speak (Italo)Celtic, what (IE?) language did they speak? If the corded ware peoples spoke proto-Germanic (touw argument) & came in an area where IE languages were already present, that means that PIE must have had earlier offshoots (older than Germanic). Isn't that a bit unlikely? It's generally believed that Germanic was one of the earliest offshoots (IMO proto-Gemanic only underwent stronger substrate influences).Don't you think the "Old Eur.hydronomy" was pre-IE, and that the IEs took over the river names that were already present in the regions they entered? Of course it's possible that not only the corded ware people but also the bell beaker peoples spoke proto-Germanic (or Germano-Balto-Slavic??), and that this was later replaced by Celtic & Italic. Did the "Old Eur.hydronomy" extend unto what is now N-Germany or Poland? It's always possible that only Germanic & Balto-Slavic adopted a substrate fashion of merging *a and *o? That both Germanic & Balto-Slavic (no other IE language groups?) show merging of *a and *o suggests they lived in lcose contact (just as the RUKI rule suggests Slavic & Aryan lived in close contact).I agree the identification bell-beakers & Celto-Italic is even less obvious than corded-ware & Germanic(Balto-Slavic). --Marc