Peter T. Daniels scripsit:

> Use <f> when transliterating Aramaic (and Arabic of course), because p/f
> is phonemic there, but <p> or <p-> (p with overbar) or <ph> for Hebrew,
> because it isn't.

It wasn't (or probably wasn't), that is. Biblical Hebrew phonology is
over-constrained, but Modern Hebrew in giving up phonemic gemination has
unequivocally phonemicized spirantization.

It isn't even the case that the general p/f phonemic distinction is
neutralized in final position, because there are enough -p borrowings now
to make that no longer true.

So: "alef" it is.

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