I take this opportunity to inform you of a trans-linguistic problem I find
difficult to solve.
In the Philippines, there is a Tagalog town that used to be called
<Nagkanláng> < >Nagkanglang>.
By the end of the 16th century, the Spanish admistration had transformed it
into <Nagcarlan>. This is still the form used nowadays.
/n/ and /r/ being dentals, the deformation of /n/ into /r/ is not too
Now why did the Spanish speakers of the time need to resort to this
deformation? Why couldn't they just say <Nagcanlan> ?