>Pronounced alone (with no surrounding words), the American English "for"
>a deep "r" at the end. But what about
><i>for free</i> ?
>Can the "r" in "for" be omitted in this case ( [fefree] )? Or is there a
>shade of "r" still left?
In my dialect (Northern Illinois) we always keep the "r" sound. In fact, a
distinguishing trait of my dialect is to overstress the "r" so much that it
almost becomes vocalic, and changes the preceeding vowel to @. We almost
seem to say "frr free". In the rest of American dialects where the "r" is
pronounced, it is always retained, no matter what.
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