--- In norse_course@yahoogroups.com, "warcharger2000"
<warcharger2000@...> wrote:
>
> is the word for me and my the same

Not as a general rule. But there are circumstances where the same form
in Old Norse might correspond to "me" and to "my" in an English
translation. This is because many Old Norse words (including the first
person singular pronoun "I, me", and the first person singular
possessive adjective "my") take different forms depending on what role
they play in the sentence and how they interact with other words in
the sentence.

(1) Þat kann ek it átjánda, er ek æva kennik mey né manns konu, [...]
nema þeiri einni er mik armi ver eða mín systir sé.
"I know an eighteenth [rune] which I never reveal to maiden nor to
man's wife, [...] except to the one who puts her arms about me or else
[one who] is my sister."

me = mik
my = mín

(2) faðir minn mun gifta mik þér, ef þú vilt biðja mín
"my father will give me away to you (in marriage) if you'll ask for
ask for me". (More idiomatically, we might say "...for my hand in
marriage" - but that's just a coincidence.)

me = mik, mín
my = minn

Among the various forms taken by the possessive adjective "my" are:
'mín' when the thing or person possessed is feminine and in the
nominative case (as in example (1) above), and 'minn' when the thing
or person possessed is masculine and in the nominative case (as in
example (2) below).

If you aren't familiar with terms like "nominative" and
"masculine/feminine" in a grammatical context, just ask - or look them
up. You might also find helpful the Wikipedia articles on "Grammatical
case" and "Grammatical gender".

In example (2), 'minn' was translated with English "my", while the
English "me" corresponds first to 'mik', then to 'mín'. In example
(1), 'mik' was translated "me", while 'mín' was translated "my". Which
forms are used depends on the grammatical context.

Typically Old Norse 'mik' (the accusative form of the first person
pronoun) corresponds to English 'me'.

(3) Sigurðr mælti:"Lát mik heyra."
Sigurd said, "Let me hear."

But with many verbs and prepositions, 'mér' (the dative form of the
first person singular pronoun) is needed. In example (4), dative is
used because of the verb 'gef', in (5) because of the pronoun 'með'.

(4) Gef mér stund til at ráðast um við mína menn
"Give me time to consult with my men"

me = mér

(5) Hefi ek þat nú með mér.
"I have it with me now."

me = mér

Other verbs and prepositions require the pronoun to be in the genitive
case. This is where the similarity comes from, because the genitive
form of the first person singular pronoun, 'mín' "me, of me", happens
to be the same in Old Norse as the nominative feminine form of the
first person singular possessive adjective, 'mín' "my". In example
(6), the pronoun takes the form 'mín' because of the pronoun 'til'; in
example (7) because of the verb 'hefna'.

(6) Þær mæltu þá til mín ok sögðu mik mikinn auðnumann verða mundu
"They spoke to me then and told me that I'd become a very fortunate man"

me = mín, mik

(7) þat hloegir mik, segir Skarpheðinn, attú munt hefna mín
"It gladdens me, says Skarphedin, that you'll avenge me"

me = mik, mín

I havn't found a convenient example of both uses of 'mín' ("my" and
"me") together from Old Norse, although there may well be one out
there somewhere, but here's one from Modern Icelandic. As far as I
know, the grammar is the same between the medieval and modern language
in this respect.

(8) þetta skrifaði mágkona mín til mín
"my sister-in-law wrote this to me"

my = mín
me = mín

I hope that wan't too confusing. I know there's a lot to take in there
if you're new to the language. If this sounds a bit overwhelming,
don't worry; it will all become clear as you learn more. Just ask if
there's anything you'd like explaining in more (or less!) detail.