> But isn't it the H in Hrafnkell that makes it voiceless not really a voiceless R?
> i am confused. i thought the combination HR was just a way for the latin scribes
> to make the phonemic sound using latin letters because the sound being made isn't
> covered by the latin alphabet. Correct me if i am way off, because i am not a
> native speaker. i may be making a complete ass out of myself but like i said i
> am confused.

I'm not sure what you mean. Berglaug is quite right to say that the combination
'hr' is pronounced as a voiceless (and possibly also aspirated depending on how
you slice it) 'r'. This also seems to be exactly what you are saying so I'm confused
about your alleged confusion :-)

KveĆ°ja,
Haukur