----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, September 10, 2003 11:45
PM
Subject: Re: [norse_course] At last!
Finishing Bodvarr / Laurel
Thanks Sarah! But I do have a question here:
Ok nú vil
ek at hann heiti eigi Hơttr lengr ok skal hann heita Hjalti upp frá
þessu;
and - now - will - I - that - he - be called
- not - HQttr - any longer - but - shall - he
- be called - Hjalti - from now on
And now I command that he be called Hood no
longer, but he shall be called Hilt from now on;
There must be some reason why it is "hann heiti" in the first part of the
phrase and "hann heita" in the second part, but I don't know what it is,
or if there should be some nuance in translation. I just made it "be
called" each time.
Also, in Hrafnkel we had varying forms of "heita" used with place
names. These were sometimes prefaced with "í" and sometimes with
"á". Why the preposition, and why two different ones?
Laurel
Laurel
This is my convoluted theory regarding your first query;
'heiti' is subjunctive because the the king desires, or is
visualizing a state of affairs not yet in existence, where Hood is not called
by that name any longer. But this changes when his desire ('vil
ek.....heiti etc.') - not yet achieved, does come very
quickly into existence by his command ('skal hann
heita.... etc.'). The king's command brooks no denial,
so what he desires almost immediately becomes
a fact.
I'll pass on your second query. If I'm wrong on the first one, I don't
want to make a fool of myself twice!
Cheers
Jed.
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