Speaking about Skáney (or "Skåne" in the mainland Scandinavian
languages), isn't it actually the Scandinavian word
for... 'Scandinavia'? In Proto-Norse, they probably spoke
about 'Skaðinauijô' (?), literally meaning 'Island of Damage', when
talking about the rough coast of Skáney/Skåne. We easily recognize
the first part 'skaðin-' in all modern Norse languages as 'damage'
(both as noun and verb). The last part '-auijô' is harder to decode,
but it is of course the same word as Icelandic 'ey[ja]' (note the i-
The Latin people turned 'Skaðinauijô' into 'Scandinavia', and our
ancestors turned it into Skáneyja, Skáney and Skåne.
One thing, though. One realizes that 'skaðin' is (or should be)
genitive. But I don't recognize it. I mean, the Old Norse
standardized form would be 'Skaðaeyja'. How did the genitive ending '-
in-' become simply '-a-'?
--- In email@example.com
, Haukur Thorgeirsson
> Heill aptr, Pætr.
> > below you typed
> > Haukr Skáneyjarjarl
> > Is jarjarl correct or a mis-type ?
> :) So you don't like Jar-Jar?
> This is quite correct as it is.
> The 'ey' in Skáney is the normal
> noun for "island" and its genitive
> form 'eyjar' is beyond doubt. The
> genitive of 'Skáney' is even specifically
> attested more than once in old poetry.
> Hafði för til ferju
> fróðr Skáneyjar góða
> blakkríðandi bakka
> barnungr þaðan farma.
> - Glúmr Geirason
> Selund náði þá síðan
> sóknheggr und sik leggja
> vals ok Vinða frelsi
> víð Skáneyjar síðu.
> - Goðþormr sindri
> The genitive is, by the way, what corresponds
> to the English 'of' (as in your original question).
> P.S. There's more than one version of the Landnámabók
> extant but in the one I checked the name Guðrøðr doesn't
> occur in the nominative at all, so you'd be hard pressed
> to use that as evidence for its r-lessness.
> P.P.S. Since we're mentioning "island" I'm told that
> its first component is really not French/Latin as
> one might think. The word should be compared with
> Old Norse ey-land.