For example, from Latin to Portuguese:
k, g, p,t, b, d, r, s, m,. n,l > idem
h > zero
u+V > v
i+V > j (z^)
Portuguese has s^, z^, z, uvular R (rr),l^, n^, all absent in Latin (at least, in Classic). Romance palatals came from clusters with -L and -Y.
Portuguese
vernacular has no "h", but it's present in foreign words and well-accepted; in some dialects and regions (as in Rio de Janeiro), the pronnouncing of uvular R is almost identical to H. In the opposite way English interdental th is hard to accept.
JS Lopes
Em Terça-feira, 19 de Novembro de 2013 16:02, "richard.wordingham@..." <richard.wordingham@...> escreveu:
In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@...> wrote:
> Ad 3: Schrijver's 'Law' PIE */e/ > Latin /a/ after pure velars implies
palatal / velar opposition in a Western IE language
Or velar / uvular.
Richard.