Re: On Greek thalassa 'sea'

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy wrote:

>
> Since the obvious epenthetical plosive is voiced /d/, I fail to understand
> how could it be that we get a voiceless aspirate unless through a sort of
> double sound shift by which one would expect at least /ph/ if not anything
> more instead of /p/ of -pos

There are many words showing t/dH alt. before r:


vártra-m S; vart = shield Os; vs
várdhra-s = strap/girdle/belt S;

árthron = joint G; vs
artus -u:s L; ard -u- = order Ar;

tetró:konta Dor G; cethorcho OI; vs
quadrá:ginta: L; kHaRasun = 40 Ar;

dragan OE; draw E; vs
trahere L;

þragjan = run Go; vs
trékho: () threkso: (fut) = run G; dredh = turn/twist/revolve Al; daRnam = (re)turn Ar;

ané:r andrós (g) anéres (p) G; vs
ánthro:pos G; [analogy as if an- = not/bad ?] dró:ps Mac;

>
> 2013/1/29 Joao S. Lopes
>
> > **
> >
> >
> >
> > Why would kH- > (instead of gH- > ) in:
> >
> > kharopós \ kharo:pós = fierce G; kháro:n = lion Mac;
> >
> > > therefore no need for "opt." (ánthro:pos <
> > > *h2endH-ro-h3kW-o-s has no connection with dró:ps)
> >
> > and how could this not be < andr- anér- ?
> >
> > I've always considered the possibility of a dialectal or substratal shift
> > *nr>*nTr in anthropos, relating it to aner, andros.
> >
> > JS Lopes