Re: On Greek thalassa 'sea'

Since the obvious epenthetical plosive is voiced /d/, I fail to understand how could it be that we get a voiceless aspirate unless through a sort of double sound shift by which one would expect at least /ph/ if not anything more instead of /p/ of -pos

2013/1/29 Joao S. Lopes <josimo70@...>

Why would kH- > (instead of gH- > ) in:

kharopós \ kharo:pós = fierce G; kháro:n = lion Mac;

> therefore no need for "opt." (ánthro:pos <
> *h2endH-ro-h3kW-o-s has no connection with dró:ps)

and how could this not be < andr- anér- ?

I've always considered the possibility of a dialectal or substratal shift *nr>*nTr in anthropos, relating it to aner, andros.

JS Lopes