Re: Basque onddo

From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 70412
Date: 2012-11-05

At 1:35:54 PM on Thursday, November 1, 2012, stlatos wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
> <bm.brian@...> wrote:

>> At 6:07:12 PM on Wednesday, October 31, 2012, stlatos
>> wrote:

>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"
>>> <bm.brian@> wrote:

>>>> At 8:59:53 PM on Tuesday, October 30, 2012, stlatos
>>>> wrote:

>>>>> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
>>>>> <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@> wrote:

>>>>>> Does the sequence /kt/ > /tʃ/ due to /kt/ > /xt/ >
>>>>>> /çt/ > /jt/ > /tj/ (suggested by areal dialectology)
>>>>>> really imply palatalization of anteconsonantal
>>>>>> *velar* /n/?

>>>>> The oddity of KC in Romance is easily seen in Rum. kt
>>>>> > pt , ks > ps (octo: > opt , coxa > coapsA);

>>>> A sequence /kt/ > /xt/ > /φt/ > /pt/ (and similarly for
>>>> /ks/ is plausible and not especially odd.

>>> Then why Nn > mn ?

>> Why not? It's analogous to the middle step of the other
>> sequences, and the first and last steps can't apply.

> If K>P anyway, no k>x is needed in place of k>p.

Is this supposed to be responsive to either of my comments?