From: shivkhokra
Message: 70078
Date: 2012-09-21
>Can you please point out where I disagree with the above?
>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@> wrote:
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@> wrote:
>
> > > Sanskrit is a fully developed court language and could only have
> > > developed after a group of Indo-Aryans formed a sophisticated
> > > polity. Only an advanced culture could have produced an advanced
> > > language capable as the linguistic vehicle of Classical Indian
> > > literature. The works may well have had antecedents in earlier
> > > related languages but what we have is the result of a refined
> > > court culture.
> >
> > But whose court? What kings do we have between the steppes and
> > India before Aryans invaded India? And where would this kingdom be
> > located? And what language would this kingdom speak?
>
> There is no hope with you. You keep on ignoring the obvious fact that Vedic Sanskrit differs, both chronologically and linguistically, from Epic/Classical Sanskrit.
>
>Other listmembers have tried to make you understand this plain fact, yet you don't want to accept it. For you there must be one timeless "Sanskrit", the Mother of all other IE languages.Umm. Where did I mention this? Why are you putting words into my mouth?
>
>So be it. Who cares, after all?
>If you do not understand what is being discussed why respond?