From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 69695
Date: 2012-05-27
> The first case (like for example IE and Vasconic) is due to the very long timedepth of the divergence node (between Vasconians and Westasians, in this case that node could be as old as 30 k years i.e dated to the paleolithic)If group A adopt the language of group B which descends from language of the ancestors of group B, then in linguistic terms the new language of group A is genetically related to the language of the ancestors of group B. Thus the Turkish of Cyprus is genetically related to the Yakut of Yakutsk, even though the speakers are only distantly related.
> The second case (like Haitians and Frenchmen or Mongolians and Russians) is due to language shift/sprachbund/creolisation/pidginisation etc...
> According to anthropologues the Caucasian/African divergence node is as old as 100 k years SO IF WE HAVE A CAUCASIAN FOLK SPEAKING A LANGUAGE VERY SIMILAR to a language spoken by an African folk, that does not mean that those languages are genetically related (because when we have 2 languages separated by nearly 100 k years,we should expect little lexical and morphological similarities*-because of erosion-) but rather could be explained by sprachbund/language shift/creolisation etc...