Re: The reason for Caesar's obtaining the two Gauls as province

From: Torsten
Message: 68632
Date: 2012-02-29

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@...> wrote:
>
> 2012/2/28, Torsten <tgpedersen@...>:
>
> >> > 'calles' has root 'a', thus it is a 'mot populaire' and as such
> >> > not directly descended from PIE by the same route as 'regular'
> >> > Latin. Ie. it is a loan.
> >> >
> >> >
> >> No.
> >> 1) 'Mot populaire' doesn't mean 'loan'.
> >
> > I think it does.

> Please demonstrate it
>

That I think so?
I assume you want me to tell why I prefer that explanation.
It's like this:

1. The 'mots populaires' belong to a particlar semantic sphere, namely that pertaining to lower classes of Roman society. You would not see that skewed distribution if they had been descended from PIE the same way as other Latin words.

2. Kuhn pointed out that many Latin words with root -a- have correspondences with root -a- in Germanic.
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/30032?var=0&l=1
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/36941?var=0&l=1
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/36946?var=0&l=1
I am sure those -a-'s can 'explained' as reflexes of -h2-, but I feel that is contrived. Given the etnic and linguistic environment at the time of the ethnogensis of Romans and Germani I prefer to ascribe them to a language or several related languages present both places at the requisite time.

> >
> >> 2) There are plenty of sources for Latin /a/
> >> e.g. from */e/ after PIE pure velar */k/
> >
> > I also think pure velars indicate loans.
> >

> Same as above

Pure velars tend to occur with -a-. Therefore I suspect they have the same origin.


Torsten