From: stlatos
Message: 68568
Date: 2012-02-16
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:In Pok.:
> > What are the sounds that you have for h2 and h4, if both apparently change e>a and one causes asp. before and the other after in some IE? What happened in pairs like:
> >
> > mitrá- = friend, mithuna- = a pair S;
> >
> > pri:tá- = pleased S; fritha- Av;
> > There's no ev. for any *-dHlo- instead of *-tlo- anywhere. In Greek and Italic it seems almost impossible that they would follow so many V (that is, older (V)x which caused t>tH, etc.) instead of having random distribution for stem-endings. For ex., why are tafle (loc) U; tabula L; the same? Where are the *-tlo- endings after -a- < -x-?
> If Skt. <mitrá-> 'friend' is related to <mithuná-> 'paired', either InIr *-thr- has been regularly reduced to -tr- in Skt., or PIE *-th4r- was already reduced to *-tr- in Indo-Iranian. Avestan has -þr- in such words in either case. Av. <frita-> is what I have seen cited as cognate to Skt. <pri:tá->, with no discrepancy.
>An actual discrepancy does occur between Skt. <prathamá-> 'first' and Av. <frat@...>, Old Persian <fratama->, Middle Pers. <fratam>. I suspect that the aspiration in the Skt. word is due to contamination with <pr.s.thá-> 'standing over, upper', which has similar superlative force although differently formed. No such discrepancy occurs between Skt. <pratará-> 'further, future' and Av. <fratara-> 'more in front, higher'.
>Latin nouns in -a:culum can be expl. by ana. from stems in -C but the huge number of -V-bulum and not in stems in -C can't be expl. by ana., or anything else but xt>H or all xdHlo in PIE, which any linguist would then use to find a sound change in PIE, if that were necessary.
> I am not sure what you are asking in your last question about *-tlo-, but I suggest you look at Latin nouns in -a:culum.
>