Re: IE finite verb forms as non-finite ones

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:

>
>
>
> Agreed. Latin does often seem odd form the perspective of modern
> Western European languages with its lack of clause markers and other
> things but (thinking via Spanish) I'm reading ascribam as a
> subjunctive or something similar
>

Yes. But the Spanish equivalent has a 'que', clearly marking the object of the verb as a dependent phrase.


Torsten