> I
don't know why this seems so hard for some people to
> understand. A change in a sound is no less of a law if it
> has two outcomes.
I rather think that if there are two unpredictable outcomes, it’s not a law. But I have no problem with an incompletely applied law, or one with exceptions due to dialects or some other factor. I don’t think this is about linguistics, but about the definition of “law”. So we’re into philosophy.
Peter
.