Re: Laryngeals: arguments from typology?

Were laryngeals proposed on the basis that only consonants like [x], [G] etc. (as opposed to, e.g., schwa vowels) were likely to cause the observed effects?

The only effect I can think of right now that would probably have to be caused by a consonant is aspiration (Greek aspirated perfect, etc.).

Does apiration --or loss of aspiration--  result in a compensatory lengthening, which often then develops into a qualitatively different vowel?

Would loss of /ç/ and  /x/ in Middle to Modern English have gone on to have any role in the later great vowel shift?

Persian spells /e/ as <ah> --I'm guessing that the shift in pronunciation came after the adoption of Arabic script.

Is German spelling of long vowels with <Vh> an analogy of a lengthening of final /Vh/ when final /h/ was lost?

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