Is there any explanation or analysis of the reasons why palatals are absent in older West European languages and present in modern ones?
Exemplifying: the soundless palatal s^ is absent in Latin, Greek, Proto-Germanic, Old High German, Gothic, Proto-Celtic, Gaulish, but present in Neolatin languages, English, Dutch, German, Irish, etc.
1- Substratal influence?
2- Coincidence?
3 - Another explanation?
For example, in Portuguese /s^/ came from Latin -ss-, -ssi-, -ps-, -x-, etc, and, through Old Portuguese /c^/, from pl-, cl-, fl-. -scl-, -ccl-, -rcl-, etc.
a) -x- /-ks-/ > *X^s^>-is^-
b) pl- > kl- > *kl^ > *k^> c^ > s^
Different from Western ones, Eastern European languages like Balto-Slavic had palatals since in their ancient forms.
JS Lopes
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