From: shivkhokra
Message: 64813
Date: 2009-08-18
>Shivraj wrote:***R This is irrelevant. Study the history of names, especially exonyms. Ask your same question about Indians. Now don't forget about Indo-Chinese, Indonesians (Island Indians), American Indians, West Indians and even Indo-West-Indians. All of these names come from Sindh and Sindh is not even part of India. So does that may Pakistanis the only true Indians?Also ask your question about Farangi, originally a Frank (Germanic), then French and then any White dude in North Africa or Asia.
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> Yes. When we analyze evidence from a text then *all* of the evidence from that text has to be consistently looked. We cannot pick and choose data from a given text partially to suit our theories.
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> If you insist that yavan *only* stood for greeks (which we know is not true) then please explain how in Mahabharata Bhagdatta, ruler of Pragjyotishpur, who has chinas (chineses mercenaries) of yellow complexion with braided hair in his army, a yavan? Can you corroborate this king as a greek from the Greek sources?
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> We would also like to know:
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> a) Did Greeks tell Indians that they were yavans?
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> b) Did Greeks call each other yavans?
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> c) Did Indians know that Greeks came from Ionia and hence should be called yavans (Ionians)?
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> d) Why did Indians continue to use the word yavans for Mughals and Brits later?
>Thanks. This is a good analogy you have given. Same applies to Yavans. Yavan was used for North eastern Indians i.e assamese, Mughals, Brits and Greeks. So to just see the yavan in Mahabharata as Greeks is incorrect.
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