Re: Res: [tied] Re: Afro-Asiatic substrate (re "folk" "polk" "pulkas

From: Rick McCallister
Message: 64532
Date: 2009-07-31



--- On Fri, 7/31/09, Joao S. Lopes <josimo70@...> wrote:

From: Joao S. Lopes <josimo70@...>
Subject: Res: [tied] Re: Afro-Asiatic substrate (re "folk" "polk" "pulkas")
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Date: Friday, July 31, 2009, 6:15 PM

 

And how about relation of *folka- to Latin populus (Osc. puplu) and vulgus?
 
*folka < *po-wL.go- ?
I picked this below from:
 
Mark R. V. Southern (Middlebury)
“Mapping Roman Communities, Servants and Households, and Rethinking Inherited Italic Social Praxis: populus (Etruscan pupluna) and Cocles, famulus, and familia
[abstract]
Mark finetunes the etymology of L populus (U puplu-). The term is usually taken either as a reflex of PIE *kʷé-kʷl(h₁)-os ‘wheel, circle ⇒ community’ or as an Etruscan loan (< pupl-, fufl-), but under either scenario the phonology is not worked out. The expected outcome of the PIE is *cocul-, and an Etruscan origin is unsupported. We do have the cognomen Cocl-es for a heroic Horatius (with folk-etymological connections with L oculus and Gk. Κύκλωψ, which itself was connected with κύκλος but historically PIE *pk̑u-klop-s ‘cattle-thief’ apud Thieme).
 
JS Lopes

I already asked that last week but so far everyone's ignoring my sugestion. I've wondered if populus is from Etruscan fuflans or vice versa, if it's from P-Italic, if it is a reduplicatiom, as it seems to be, and if it's related to folk, etc. If it is related, then the root is *pVl- and -k- is a suffix

De: Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@... edu.pl>
Para: cybalist@... s.com
Enviadas: Sexta-feira, 31 de Julho de 2009 17:30:34
Assunto: Re: [tied] Re: Afro-Asiatic substrate (re "folk" "polk" "pulkas")

 

On 2009-07-31 15:21, george knysh wrote:

> ****GK: What about some of the languages that are substrate donors to
> Germanic (but not to Baltic or Slavic)? BTW I found the notion that both
> Baltic and Slavic lacked a phoneme "f" originally wildly
> interesting. ..Any other language groups in that category>*** *

PIE had no *f or *v, to begin with. Nor did Sanskrit, or Classical Greek
({phi} stood for an aspirated stop), or Proto-Celtic. .. In general,
early Indo-European languages had relatively few fricatives. If you want
examples of f-less languages in other families, there are plenty of
them. In the indigenous languages of Australia, where fricatives of any
kind are vanishingly rare, /f/ doesn't exist at all, I believe.

Piotr



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