Re: [pieml] Labiovelars versus Palatals + Labiovelar Approximant

From: Arnaud Fournet
Message: 61124
Date: 2008-10-31

----- Original Message -----
From: "Rick McCallister" <gabaroo6958@...>
> >
> > ==========
>
> You have cases like
> Spanish continĂșo /kontinuo/ "I continue"
> /k@.../
> and continuo /kontinwo/ "continual" /k@...@l/
> where /u/ and /w/ seem to be allophonic in both Spanish and
> English
> ===========
>
> i don't think Spanish
> nor any Romance language (but northern French)
> has a phoneme /w/.

That's a crock of pure bolshevik.
Spanish writes /w/ as <CuV>, generally as <guV> or <huV>
French has <oui> /wi/
===========
No,
as regards French
oui is a vocalic diphtongue [ui]
as is shown from the fact
that the homophone word ouie makes "liaison"
such as les Z-ouies with Z in plural
something that is impossible with a consonant initial.
The fact that it sounds like [wi] is irrelevant
from the point of view of French phonology,
[wi] is a vocalic diphtongue /ui/
and there is no /w/ phoneme.
[w] is a "sound" not a phoneme.
In slow "spelling" speech, oui is /u/+/i/ not **/wi/.

I suppose a native speaker of English would never spell week as oo-eek in
two syllables,
but ouie is spelled this way : ou-i(e) two syllables.

This is not true in Northern French
where wagon is /wagoN/
and **les Z-wagons is impossible.
and wagon would not be spelled ou-a-gon.
You can contrast it with les Z-oies /ua/
standard French is les /V/agons with /v/ instead of /w/.

and I guess the same is true in Spanish.
huevos in plural probably syllabicates as lo-swe-vos
not like los-we-vos
but I'm not a speaker of Spanish so I let you say how it works.

This has nothing to do with bolshevism,
I'm afraid your phonological approach is a bit superficial and tainted by
the fact you are a native speaker of a language where /w/ is a phoneme.

Arnaud