Re: Marduk = Marut = Marutash ?

From: Arnaud Fournet
Message: 60717
Date: 2008-10-09

----- Original Message -----
From: kishore patnaik

Again, you instinctively assume that wider IE distribution means older
connotation. Am I right? This is what I precisely oppose.
Agreed that I am not a scholar and as earlier it is said, being a layman
does not warrant me to shoot off my ideas. Yet, I think what I say
precisely becoming true - there is no independent proof to say that a word
of wider IE distribution (here, Zeus) is older than the pure Indic word
(Varuna).

Do we have an independent proof, without simply assuming that wider IE
distribution means older connotation? if not linguistics, in liturgical
texts? in Archaeology? I am not sure.

This becomes more so, since I may clarify that I did not mean to be so
categocial in my statement about Varuna being Ahur Mazda, as I have written.
If Iranian tradition is a loan tradition from India, still you can have a
Varuna in Iran, which does not prove any thing.

Kishore patnaik

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Yes,
and you can have *dyews everywhere, and it still does not prove anything....

Before you tear apart well-established theories about IE mythology,
you'd better read Dumezil.
His theories have overcome considerable attacks and they are still there.

Arnaud
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