From: Arnaud Fournet
----- Original Message -----
From: "Andrew Jarrette" <anjarrette@...>
>> The list was intended to be seen as evidence for borrowing. Otherwise
>> one would be claiming that people knew agriculture at the time of the
>> earliest language splits, which is obviously not true.
I suppose people realized cereals could be eaten before agriculture came
> I see. By "earliest language splits" are you referring to the splits
> that led to the various branches of IE, or are you referring to a
> possible split that led to IE on one hand and Semitic (and maybe
> Kartvelian, Uralic, Yeniseian, etc.) on the other? I'm still a
> little confused: if agriculture in the Fertile Crescent began around
> 9500 BC according to Wiki, then you are saying that the split between
> IE and Semitic/etc. occurred before this?
Personally, I think the PIE/Semitic split happened around -25000,
if you believe in glottochronology.
> And if you _are_
> referring to the intra-IE splits, how early did these splits occur?
> And when did Indo-Europeans acquire agriculture? Who taught it to
> them? And what people are the source of the common agricultural
> vocabulary in (at least western) IE? Is it the Semites? Perhaps there
> is a chronology of language development and agricultural development
> on the Internet?
Anatolian Indo-Europeans contributed to the creation of agriculture in
and later on, from -6500 onward, agriculture spread to other Indo-europeans
populations in Eastern Europe,
and then passed to all of them, etc.