Re: Negau

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

>
> No, it presupposes that there was a people which could transfer it to
> to the Germanic peoples, after the Grimm-shift. The Semitic speakers
> didn't have to stay around themselves to do that.

Could this people have transmitted a *plVg- to Celtic > *leuga >
"league" etc. and *plVg to Germanic (or via Pannonian, etc.) > *plo:ga-?

>
> Some years back, when I was in an Arnauld-phase I compiled this list
> of words in *bh/p-r/l-
> http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/Opr.html
> based on the "water"-word
> http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/Op.html

An impressive list, I see why so many support a fairly close
relationship between Semitic and Indo-European, only to what extent is
it borrowing one way or the other?

>
> and the idea that the Middle East was not the cradle of civilization
> and agriculture, but a stopover point for the civilization and
> agriculture of the Far East, ie. the drowned continent of Sundaland
> (that was after I read Oppenheimer's 'Out of Eden'). There is
> something fishy about the polycentric (rather bicentric) view of world
> history where bronze was invented twice, cereal cultivated twice,
> animals domesticated twice.
>

I have to agree about that last statement, only since I wasn't there
at the time I am not going to go so far as to profess this idea. The
first statement, well, I believe in modern geology and plate tectonics
so I would have to give little credence to the idea of a drowned
continent of Sundaland (but I will look for "Out of Eden" in the
library when I get a chance). But I don't think it's unbelievable
that the technology and the agriculture of civilization might have
originated in the Far East and then spread westward.

Andrew