Re: Semantic leeway

From: tgpedersen
Message: 59637
Date: 2008-07-26

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "gprosti" <gprosti@...> wrote:
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@> wrote:
> >
> > On 2008-07-24 23:03, gprosti wrote:
> >
> > > What I'm wondering is: what empirical evidence is this gradient
> > > of plausibility based on? For example, the empirical evidence
> > > for the probability of semantic continuity ("wolf" > "wolf") is
> > > (I would suspect) that linguists constantly see semantic
> > > continuity over the history of the languages they research,
> > > suggesting a high probability of occurrence. I have never seen
> > > this type of justification offered for the probability of a
> > > given semantic change. To clarify what I mean: one could offer
> > > a single example of the change "wolf" > "jackal", but that
> > > would be one example out of hundreds or thousands of potential
> > > cases. To establish the likelihood of the change, it seems one
> > > would have to use a larger sample size than one.
> >
> > To assess its _probability_ (empirically, and ex post), yes, one
> > would. But this branch of linguistics is a historical discipline;
> > it often has to deal with phenomena that don't happen often
> > enough in replicable conditions to be approached statistically.

Linguists, like historians, are in the same position as attorneys.
There may be hard and fast criteria in a few subareas for what is the
truth in the scenario you come up with, but in the final analysis,
what matters is whether you can convince the jury that it's true. How
that is done, no one really knows.


Torsten