It's me again...
"kök, jfr fsv. kökia f., 1500-t. o. ofta
på 1600-t.: köke n., motsv. no. kjok, da.
kvkken, från mlty. koke, kokene = fhty.
kachina (ty. kliché), ägs. cycene (eng.
kitchen); från mlat. cucina (;> fra.
cui-sine), av lat. coqulna, till coquo (se
koka)."
Etymonline.com says:
"O.E. cycene, from W.Gmc. *kocina (cf. M.Du. cökene, O.H.G. chuhhina, Ger. Küche, Dan. kjøkken), probably borrowed from V.L. *cocina (cf. Fr. cuisine, Sp. cocina), variant of L. coquina "kitchen," from fem. of coquinus "of cooks," from coquus "cook," from coquere "to cook" (see cook (n.))."
I want to know whether Hellquist considers medieval latin to be the same as vulgar latin or a continuation of vulgar latin.
Carl Hult