Re: a discussion on OIT

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "jsjonesmiami" <jsjonesmiami@>

wrote:

> >
> > As for PIE dorsals, there are 3 views that I can recall.
> >
>
> D) There were originally velars, which had allophones c^e/ko etc,
> and labiovelars, which had allophones ke/kWo etc. Both satem and
> kentum languages got rid of the allophone alternation in paradigms,
> the satem languages by generalizing the former allophone, the
> kentum ones by generalizing the latter.

I thought there was at least one more view, but I didn't remember
what it was. (I'm not sure that all phonologists would be happy about
[k] being analyzed as an allophone of 2 phonemes. I could be wrong.
But that's a matter of terminology.) So what happens outside of
paradigms?

> I've tried to sketch how it could be done
>

http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/PIEstops/PIEstopsCurrent.html

>
> it's definitely not definitive. Please ignore the gunk at the
> bottom.
>
>
> Torsten

The link is just to a page with a big table and no explanation,
definitive or not. I don't think I can make assumptions about how to
interpret it.

Jeff