Caucasian Languages in India (was Re: [tied] Who can explain the com

---
There is a point in Patrick's claim.
yes, there was intial coastal migration to India. who entered to
this part of continent first, negritoids or austrics?
Are these two phenotypes evolved simultaneously in Africa and moved
to India. If so, Munda languages could be originated in India.But
such clams are not substantiating with genomic findings.Here we
should make a clear demarcation of language and genes(people).
Evidences suggest that of a male inflow of austrics from east to
India. Are these people brought a proto munda language to India or
there was pre neolithic languages in India and were replaced by
later waves of Dravidian? and only munda language sustains.
Still lot of things to be traced.
sreenathan


In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "david_russell_watson" <liberty@...>
wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@>
> wrote:
> >
> > The Austro-Asiatic languages moved through coastal India first

on

> > their way east.
> >
> > Next came the Elamo-Dravidians from the Northwest.
> >
> > Finally, Caucasians invaded Northern India.
>
> Well here's something new! Do you have any evidence for such an
> invasion? The sole evidence of any influence on Indo-Aryan from
> Caucasian, as far as I know, is the suggested Caucasian origin of
> Indra, but which I thought was supposed to have happened outside
> of India, well before the Indo-Aryans arrived there.
>
> You also forgot to mention the arrival of those very Indo-Aryans
> in India, or was that an intentional omission?
>
> David
>