Re: Ban all non academic discussions

From: kishore patnaik
Message: 57670
Date: 2008-04-19

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Ok
It means Rg Veda and Sanscrit are more or less consubstantial,
just as Old Greek and Homer.
When Sanscrit did not exist, Rg Veda could not exist,
at least not under that form.
Arnaud
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I did not understand that. Often you talk things, the meaning of which I would not understand. Please make yourself very clear.

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It is usually assumed that Script was invented for very ordinary means :
such as counting sheep and grain.

What does "much before" means ?
Egyptian is about -3300 BC
Cuneiform is Sargon -2600.
Arnaud
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I have not made any statement as such.  I reserve my comments

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Rg Veda clearly shows that the speakers who composed this document were
nomads living in a rather cold place and having no knowledge what a town
was.
Cf. Witzel.
Arnaud
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Nonsense. Ural Aryans are supposed to be the ancestors of SA's.  UA's knew fort building, the so called Mandala fort civilization pertains to them.

If this is so, then how come SA's who are supposed to be highly intellectual not only forgot fort building but have abruptly and  totally started adopting a   non artefact culture? Very silly premise.  If you consider the so called chariot trace from steppes to Balucistan, the same questions keep arising. The trace stops just short of Balucistan.

The order of chariot building and horse riding is in reverse to that of places elsewhere.

Elsewhere, the chariots were a clear (lighter) modification of carts , horses replacing the mules etc. chariots have preceded horse riding. But in balucistan, the chariots have come much after the horse riding. this  does not fit into the  theory of aryans  coming from steppes. In  any case, there is hardly any arch find of chariots in India, clearly indicting that chariots were a clear passe  much before the times of the Greeks. The Mirzapur  paintings clearly illustrate this ( more about that later)

One more important factor we all are forgetting is the civilization of south india.  By the time of IVC, south india was commercially active exporting gold, spices etc to IV and later, to Asia minor. Sri lanka was exporting cardammon to Egypt at a very early date.

All the above clearly indicate that Aryans, from wherever they have come from, have a clear cut history much prior to the so called 1500 bce!

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I m not aware any Mittanni text says that.

And in fact, I think Mittani or whatever is only remotely relevant for
Sanscrit Veda.

Arnaud
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No you are wrong again. The various corners of old world are more connected than what we are ready to accept. This is true not just after historical times but even in pre historical times-  that  arrow- bow technology and  mesolithic evidence
are common to many cultures go on to prove this.

the mythology of asvins is present in mayans (2600 bce) as well as arkaim culture.(1750 bce)  The same story is found in Br up, whenever you want to place that !

the flood myth was prevalent in more than 300 cultures. Btw, the biblical flood story obviously has an indic origin - probably heard from Indus maritime merchants.  That Noah left a dove to find the land is exactly what a naval merchant ship captain from IVC  was doing all the time - only thing is they were using ravines.


Kishore patnaik