>Which means you end up with the linguistic equivalent of the EPR
> On Sat, 29 Mar 2008 02:57:16 -0000, "tgpedersen"
> <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
> >> The fact that the law (Kluge's, I mean) worked in exactly
> >> the same way in Germanic (also in pretonic position only)
> >> makes it all the more plausible that the same conditioning
> >> applied in Celtic. In fact, I find it very hard to avoid
> >> thinking that it is the _same_ law in both Germanic and
> >> Celtic.
> >Hm. What does that mean? That it applied alike in two separate
> >language branches, that it applied in a common Celtic-Germanic
> >prestage (I'm not aware there is one), or that it applied in some
> >language which became substratal to both Celtic and Germanic?
> That it, like, say, the satem shift, applied across several
> neighbouring, but already differentiated, Indo-European