From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
Message: 56168
Date: 2008-03-29
>That it, like, say, the satem shift, applied across several
>> The fact that the law (Kluge's, I mean) worked in exactly
>> the same way in Germanic (also in pretonic position only)
>> makes it all the more plausible that the same conditioning
>> applied in Celtic. In fact, I find it very hard to avoid
>> thinking that it is the _same_ law in both Germanic and
>> Celtic.
>
>Hm. What does that mean? That it applied alike in two separate
>language branches, that it applied in a common Celtic-Germanic
>prestage (I'm not aware there is one), or that it applied in some
>language which became substratal to both Celtic and Germanic?