Re: Volcae and Volsci

> The fact that the law (Kluge's, I mean) worked in exactly
> the same way in Germanic (also in pretonic position only)
> makes it all the more plausible that the same conditioning
> applied in Celtic. In fact, I find it very hard to avoid
> thinking that it is the _same_ law in both Germanic and
> Celtic.

Hm. What does that mean? That it applied alike in two separate
language branches, that it applied in a common Celtic-Germanic
prestage (I'm not aware there is one), or that it applied in some
language which became substratal to both Celtic and Germanic?


Torsten