Re: Latin -idus as from dH- too => and the accent of Grk. *dHugh2ter

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
<miguelc@...> wrote:

>
> On Tue, 18 Mar 2008 08:49:48 -0000, "alexandru_mg3"
> <alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:
>
> >II. Now a question for your 'accent wondering theory'
> >======================================================
> >IF the Original /e:/ in pate':r was long WHY YOUR 'WONDERING

ACCENT

> >THEORY' DIDN'T ARRIVE TO MOVE IT on PENUL. SYLLABLE AS EXPECTED

(and

> >as you have proposed for /tHu-ga'-t:er/ after it would have dance

for

> >awhile on the first syllable /tHu'-ga-t:er/?
> >
> > (te:r in pate':r, being a heavy syllable too isn't it, as in
> >dHuga'te:r too...)
>
> Kiparsky:
> >... the process of IAMBIC RETRACTION.
> >This process, first identified in Bartoli 1930, deaccents
> >a final iambic sequence (^ -') in polysyllabic words,
> >resulting in recessive accentuation.
>
> "Polysyllabic" here means "having 3 or more syllables".
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> miguelc@...
>

I.
Miguel, what you are saying NOW is NOT AT ALL WHAT YOU HAVE SAID
FIRST (vocative etc...) and as usual you have 'changed your mind in a
hidden way'

IT's CLEAR NOW That YOURSELF CONSIDER YOUR INITIAL 'WONDERING ACCENT
THEORY' AS A WRONG ONE


II. At least my .pdf has determined to think different as before


III. But it's still not the end : Now I have a new Question For You:

===================================================================
Are the derivativatives constructed with the -ter / -(h2)ter sufix
('mather'/'father'/'daughter') recessive in Greek or NOT?
===================================================================

Please pay attention not to write a wrong answer :)

Marius