Re: Re[2]: [tied] Latin -idus as from dH- too

I think Marius has the natural prejudice of speakers of Romance languages
and many other similar that words without vowels in the places he expects
them are unpronounceable.

Unfortunately, simply not true.

I am not sure that everyone, even on this erudite list, realizes the close
relationship between [h] and a vowel, presumably [a].

When you hear an Indian pronounce <bh>, it seems to me that the aspiration
is partly voiced, and almost vocalic.

What do the rest of you think about that purely subjective observation.

Patrick

----- Original Message -----
From: "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...>
To: "alexandru_mg3" <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Saturday, March 15, 2008 11:37 AM
Subject: Re[2]: [tied] Latin -idus as from dH- too


> At 11:44:10 AM on Saturday, March 15, 2008, alexandru_mg3
> wrote:
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski
> > <gpiotr@...> wrote:
>
> >> On 2008-03-15 16:25, Brian M. Scott wrote:
>
> >>> You're claiming native-speaker intuition for PIE?
>
> >> While denying it to native speakers of English, Polish,
> >> Spanish, Danish etc. ;)?
>
>
> > I do not deny of course if you read again what I wrote I
> > talked about ALL the indo-europeans
>
> You wrote:
>
> but as a native speaker of an Indo-European idiom I can
> tell you that this is the case here:
>
> /dHu-g&x-ter/
> /p&x-ter/
>
> It seems that several native speakers of IE idioms don't
> share your view.
>
> > 1. Do you have other syllabification for ph2ter but
> > /pVX-ter/ (something like p&x-ter) Piotr?
>
> Sure: something like [pa"te:r], where [a"] is turned-a,
> from an earlier stage that could have been something like
> [pXte:r], possibly with some sort of prop vowel.
>
> Brian
>
>
>