> =================
> It happens all the time with eastern and central PIE.
> > Glottal stop (H2) + C > voiced C.
> > Arnaud
>
> ***
> How about a couple of examples of that.
> ***
>
> I have already given :
> the root *bhlH2-k "beam"
> Pok 123
> LAtin ful-c-rum (unvoiced)
> gaulish bala:-k-on (unvoiced + long=
> Greek phalan-g-s (voiced)
> Sancrit *bhuri:z^au (voiced + long)
***
It is without precedent for a preceding glottal stop to voice anything.
====================
This point is related to two other questions :
Q1 : did PIE have glottalized consonants ?
Q2 : (if yes) Did PIE have pre-glottalized consonants ?
My point of view, I shall restate once again :
Q1 : yes
Q2 : no, only eastern and central post-PIE branches did.
Because C? became ?C in East/central post-PIE,
it fused with phonotactic ? + unvoiced consonants.
The result was : voiced consonant in all cases
in these two branches of PIE.
Arnaud
======================
Secondly, the *H2 does not come into contact with the fourth element of the
stem.
You are asking us to believe that *H2 voiced [k] over a syllable
boundary???????
============
Phonotactic ?+unvoiced C > C voiced
happens wherever possible in Eastern and Central post-PIE branches.
This feature does not care about syllable boundaries.
By the way
I'm happy to discover you care about syllables.
Arnaud
==============
> Torsten gave you an example two days ago.
> Door *?a?t
> Latin antae
> Sanscrit a:t
> Armenian dr-and- (voiced)
> Yenissei ?a?t
>
> Sanscrit is from H2n:-t-
> The laryngeal after *n fused with n-
> before it could voice the -t-
> LAtin anta instead of an-i-ta
> is coherent with an early fusion of
> n and ?
>
> This example is also **one** more
> proof that H1 is **not** glottal stop.
***
And what language is *?a?t supposed to be? pre-PIE? If so, say so.
====
I mean PIE was *?a?t
with possible -n- infix.
Yenissei is part of PIE
I'm not making "external" references.
I'm not talking about pre-PIE.
All this is PIE.
Arnaud
=========
The root here is obvious (apparently to anyone but Arnaud): PIE *Ha(:)n-t-;
it means 'front'.
=============
Obvious to whom ?
Meillet does not even mention this *obvious* thing
(which I consider stupid).
Arnaud
===============
Your example is no proof of anything.
And why would forms with supposedly *H2 be any proof of the phonetic nature
of *H1???
Patrick
===============
You have been claiming
that H1 was glottal stop.
this example H2nH2-t shows
that (one) H2(.1) is *?
so that H1 cannot be *? at the same time,
Too hard to understand ?
You don't even understand
your own point of view.
[Excessively provocative comment deleted. -Brian]
Arnaud
==========