> "if the existence of that common ancestor *could* be
> demonstrated, it wouldn't matter whether Basque and
> Etruscan shared phonological developments."
> So What am I supposed to understand ?
> I consider these statements are obviously conflicting.
> I agree with Statement 1
> I think Statement 2 is stupid.
Then in all likelihood you simply don't understand Statement
2. Since it's both straightforward and rather obvious, I'm
at a loss to know what I might say to make it any clearer,
but I will try once more. The existence of a common
ancestor of Albanian and French has been demonstrated. The
fact that these two languages show very different
phonological developments does not affect that demonstration
or put that relationship in doubt.
Brian
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French is also related to Iranian and Indic.
I think the fact that Iranian and Indic are satem
but French is not
matters when you want to classify PIE languages.
Shared phonetic developments matter.
Arnaud
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