Re: Indo-Aryans outside of India

By Hesychius's time, Greeks et al. knew about India
and would have been able to associate a
Sanskrit-sounding language with India.
The other alternative I can think of is if the
Persians exiled a group of Indians there but I suppose
there would have been a record of that.

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
> >
> > I know about the Mitanni Indo-Aryans but does
> anyone
> > know anything about the Sindes and Maeotes of the
> > Black Sea?
> > Are they considered Indo-Aryan just because of the
> > name Sindes? Or is there anything to back this up?
> > BTW: I thought the term Sind- originally referred
> to
> > the Indus and meant "river"
> >
> >
> > For Hellenistic times, Oleg N. Trubachev (1999;
> > elaborating on a hypothesis by Kretschmer 1944)
> > suggests that there were Indo-Aryan speakers in
> the
> > Pontic steppe. The Maeotes and the Sindes, the
> latter
> > also known as "Indoi" and described by Hesychius
> as an
> > "an Indian people".[7]
>
> Oops! If the presence of Indo-Aryan type words in
> the Pontic steppe is
> proof positive that the Indo-Aryans came to India
> from there, and not
> the logically possible other way round, how come
> Hysychius calls the
> peoples in the Pontic steppe, who use those words,
> 'Indian'? Because
> some of their relatives in the past had gone to
> India? Or...?
>
>
> Torsten
>
>
>

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