Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

From: fournet.arnaud
Message: 53379
Date: 2008-02-16

No. What I am saying is the so called one way loans from Uralic to IE
could be a result of a long lost genetic relationship in the form of
Indo-Uralic. It does not prove what Mr. Brighenti is trying to prove.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Uralic

"If the Uralic word is borrowed from Indo-European, why is it found in
nearly identical form right across Siberia? Possible cognates are also
found for the words for 'name' in Chukchi nənnə 'name' and Old
Japanese na 'name' and for 'water' in Evenki udun 'rain', Even udən
'rain', and Ainu owata 'water' (Greenberg 2002). Thus, alongside the
hypothesis of borrowing from Indo-European, another possibility is
that Indo-European and Uralic themselves belong to a larger grouping."

M. Kelkar
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Uralic and Japanase too came out of India.

Arnaud

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