Re: Meaning of Aryan: now, "white people"?

From: Rick McCallister
Message: 53248
Date: 2008-02-15

The inconvenient truth here, as our colleagues have
pointed out and you have failed to grasp is that many
of these loan words can only have come from Indo-Aryan
or Indo-Iranian. There may well have been an
Indo-Uralic language but you're just flinging red
herrings. Have you even bothered to read Witzel? If
not, then you are willfully ignorant. His stuff is on
the web --we're not talking about some schmuck who
hawks his xeroxed manuscripts from some dank office in
Chootistan.


--- mkelkar2003 <swatimkelkar@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister
> <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
> >
> > So you're basically saying that Dravidian is from
> > Central Asia and they went all the way through
> > Indo-Aryan on their way to S. India? So, when did
> they
> > do this? What traces do we have of Dravidian in
> BMAC?
> > Why hasn't Witzel picked up on this? Is he
> > deliberating deluding everyone or is he a tard?
>
> BMAC does not have traces of either Dravidian,
> Uralic or Indo-Iranian
> See Lamberg-Karlovsky IIr 2005.pdf) in the files
> section.
> Burushki languages of Pakistan has been classified
> as Dravidian.
> Witzel is only focussing on a narrow aspect of inter
> familial contact.
> The hypothesis of Indo-Uralic family eliminates the
> necessity of
> borrowing from Uralic to IE.
>
> M. Kelkar
>
>
>
> >
> >
>
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>
>
>



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