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> What is "s mobile" ?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_s-mobile
>
> As far as I remember,
> I am the only one that asserts
> PIE had prefixes.
Apparently not, which you would have known if you had spent a little
more time studying existing literature on IE historical linguistics.
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term s-mobile (mobile pronounced as in Italian; the word is a Latin neuter
adjective) designates the phenomenon
[...]
One theory of the origin of the s-mobile is that it was influenced by a
suffix to the preceding word.
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A "phenomenon" (sic !) is still far away from a prefix
and a suffix in the preceding word too.
Arnaud
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Asserting that PIE had no s mobile is against linguistic orthodoxy. Is
that what you mean? However asserting PIE both had and hadn't prefixes
is trespassing the limits of the orthodoxy of logic, ie. the 'tertium
non datur' rule.
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I'm provoking a little bit
by saying the opposite of my real thinking.
Arnaud
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Somehow this question came to me: theoretically, could a pope issue a
bull, if he hadn't read the Bible?
Torsten
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I suppose you have got
that typical protestantic obsession with the (Catholic) pope.
I prefer : Can a bull issue a bull, if he has red the Bible ?
Arnaud
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