Re: PS Emphatics

From: fournet.arnaud
Message: 52222
Date: 2008-02-03

My question is how verb ablaut in Germanic started in
the first place
Does it have any congeners in other IE branches?
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Personally, I consider
that this ablaut in verbs opposing
*o for past and *e for present
is an innovation post-PIE of
central and eastern PIE.

There is not a single example of that in Latin,
and I am still not convinced that Celtic provides
good examples
but I will be grateful if somebody can provide one.

I believe present and past were first expressed
by the two sets of desinences,
which are considered as "secondary" markers
by orthodoxy
I believe these "secondary" markers were primary.

Arnaud
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