>Folk etymology can operate between words with no relation to each
> --- In firstname.lastname@example.org, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
> > But doesn't the form galondrina also exist? It seems that
> > *arondrina existed in Iberia first, with met. in Portuguese but
> > dissim. r>l, then contamination with gallina 'hen' in Spanish, then
> > (in most dia.?) assim. a-o > o-o.
> >> It's possible that er > ar was an intermediate stage of er > r in
> > those environments where e>0 would occur, but was sometimes
> > preserved when met. or analogy occurred (or maybe it was just
> > sporadic).
> What you say is probably true (though the details of the process will
> remain unprovable, I suspect).
> (I even doubt the possible contamination with
> gallina that you point out --too dissimilar birds, I think, to
> interfere-- unlike the larks and swallows.)
> > *passero+ > pajaro (if *ssr wasn't allowed at the time,The reasons for my support of a specific sound change include:
> > so e>0 couldn't occur).
> For that, I think the usual explanation (i.e. that Spanish tends to
> make an -a- out of the penultimate vowel in first-syllable stress
> trisyllabic words such as relámpago or ciénaga, in application of the
> "law of typical word-finals") is more natural than looking for some
> phonetic rationalization (which, I'm sorry to confess, reminds me in
> this case of Procust's bed).